From: Ronald Wong (dogtoy@isgroup.net)
Date: Wed Mar 05 1997 - 22:37:18 EST
Jonathan Robie wrote:
>
> I simply don't know how to understand this verse:
>
> Roma 1:29 (GNT) peplhrwmenous pash adikia ponhria pleonexia kakia ...
>
> Is PEPLHRWMENOUS an accusative absolute? (Does NT Greek use accusative
> absolutes?) What are all those dative female adjectives doing after the accusative participle?
Jonathan....
I don't believe this is the Absolute use here...but rather a simple
ajectival participle with the ADOKIMON NOUN (v.28). ie. to qualify this
type of mind....
or it could be an adverbial participle modifying the PAREDWKEN (V.28).
>
>Roma 1:29 (GNT) ... mestous fqonou fonou eridos dolou kakohqeias How is MESTOUS being used
> with the accusative here?
I would say it is simply ajectival to the accusative NOUN.
>
> Roma 1:30 (GNT) katalalous qeostugeis ubristas uperhfanous alazonas,
> efeuretas kakwn, goneusin apeiqeis,
>
> Why are these all accusative?
PAREDWKEN AUTOUS hO QEOS EIS ADOKIMON NOUN...
peplhrwmenous pash adikia ponhria pleonexia kakia ...
... mestous fqonou fonou eridos dolou kakohqeias
katalalous qeostugeis ubristas uperhfanous alazonas, efeuretas
kakwn, goneusin apeiqeis,
Could all three clauses be simply adverbial clauses (accusative of
manner)...simply describing the manner of PAREDWKEN?
just a though...and guessing...
Ronald Wong
O'Brien, FL.
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