From: Jonathan Robie (jwrobie@mindspring.com)
Date: Fri Jun 06 1997 - 23:22:34 EDT
In context, EKBALLEI in Mark 1:12 refers to past time. How does the meaning
of the sentence change if I change the present-tense verb EKBALLEI to the
imperfect (EKEBALLE? I'm bad with morphology...)
Mk 1:12 Kai euqus to pneuma auton *ekballei* eis thn erhmon.
Mk 1:12 Kai euqus to pneuma auton *ekeballe* eis thn erhmon.
Is there a difference in meaning or in emphasis? If so, what is this
difference? I'm asking this to test a way of understanding the use of these
tenses...
Jonathan
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Jonathan Robie jwrobie@mindspring.com http://www.mindspring.com/~jwrobie
POET Software, 3207 Gibson Road, Durham, N.C., 27703 http://www.poet.com
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