From: Brian E. Wilson (brian@twonh.demon.co.uk)
Date: Wed Dec 03 1997 - 07:32:35 EST
Does MIAJ GUNAIKOJ ANDRA in I Tim 3:2 mean that at the time I Timothy
was written, a Christian man was allowed to have more than one wife, but
that if he was an EPISKOPOJ, then he should be married to only one
woman? In other words, were Christian men in New Testament days allowed
to be what today we would call polygamists? It seems to me that in I Tim
3:2 it would hardly be said that a bishop should have only one wife
unless generally a Christian man was allowed to be married to more than
one woman at the same time.
Putting the question another way, is there any statement in the New
Testament which explicitly rules out a Christian man being married at
the same time to two or more women?
I am not personally interested in becoming a polygamist myself! My
reason for wanting to explore this is that there is considerable
controversy in the UK about pronouncements by the URC concerning sexual
partners and the ordained ministry, and all this is due to be discussed
at an important meeting or the Ecumenical Project of which I am a
member. What I would like to be able to say at the meeting is that
there is no doubt that the NT states in such and such a text that no
Christian man should be married to more than one woman at the same time.
I had always assumed that there is such a text, but, to my surprise, I
have not been able to find one. Indeed, I Tim. 3:2 seems to suggest the
opposite view. Or have I misunderstood the force of MIAJ here?
BRIAN WILSON
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