From: Jonathan Robie (jonathan@texcel.no)
Date: Wed Jan 07 1998 - 12:54:25 EST
At 12:16 PM 1/7/98 EST, Paul S. Dixon wrote:
>Hmm, unless the anarthrous predicate nominative is a proper name, is it
>possible it can still be definite, that is, that the leading nuance on
>the noun
>is definiteness? If so, can you give me an example?
With a pronoun: John 1:49 SU EI hO hUIOS TOU QEOU
With a title: John 1:49 SU BASILEUS EI TOU ISRAHL
With a demonstrative: 1 John 5:6 hOUTOS ESTIN hO ELQWN DI' hUDATOS KAI
hAIMATOS
With a common noun: Rom 1:16 DUNAMIS GAR QEOU ESTIN, cf 1 Cor 1:18 (you may
prefer qualitative for this)
In the search I did, incidentally, names or titles accounted for a large
proportion of the anarthrous predicates, but perhaps I did a
non-representative search.
Jonathan
jonathan@texcel.no
Texcel Research
http://www.texcel.no
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