From: Revcraigh (Revcraigh@aol.com)
Date: Mon Jan 12 1998 - 18:02:59 EST
Dear B-Greekers,
In thinking through some recent posts (mostly those on Rom. 3:22a: DIA
PISTEWS IHSOU XRISTOU), I began wondering about the ambiguities presented by
the various ways of taking genitives (particularly subjective/objective
genitives). Is it, in anyone's opinion, possible that the ambiguities of a
phrase like DIA PISTEWS IHSOU XRISTOU (faith/faitfulness which Jesus Christ
has/displayed on earth [possessive or subjective gen.]; or which Jesus Christ
gives to/enables in his chosen people [cause or source]; or which has Jesus
Christ as its object [objective]) might be *intended* by Paul? That he might
mean *all* of these at once? That this might be why he does not make his
intended meaning more definitely clear? That the interpreter's task is not to
determine which *one* is right but, given the various possibilities, what each
or all of them mean? That quibbling over which one is right to the exclusion
of all others is not only pointless but actually *misses* much or even most of
Paul's point(s)?
Just wondering out loud.
Rev. Craig R. Harmon.
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