From: Steven Cox (scox@ns1.chinaonline.com.cn.net)
Date: Wed Jan 28 1998 - 18:58:09 EST
Hello
Sensitive question because it actually affects most of us:
| Is there credible **linguistic** evidence that present tense in
| Romans 7:14~25 refers to the past.
Cheers
Steven
PS Background:
I have recently heard that the present tense in Romans 7:14~25
is a "past present" and means that Paul must have been talking
about his situation prior to being saved.
My gut reaction (or knee-jerk reaction maybe) is that the text
makes sense in the present, as written, and this is a Theology
driven rather than linguistically driven reading, but I'm
more than willing to be shown otherwise. But I need to be shown
from linguistics / grammar.
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