Re: Sabbath(s) in Matt 28:1

From: George Athas (gathas@mail.usyd.edu.au)
Date: Thu Jan 29 1998 - 18:49:40 EST


Brrolan@ra.rockwell.com wrote:

> Please correct me if I am wrong, but isn't "sabbath" also used for the
> passover, even though it may not fall on the seventh day? I base this on
> the following verses:
>
> Mark 15:42 - And now when the even was come, because it was the
> preparation, *that is, the day before the sabbath,*
>
> John 19:31 - The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the
> bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day {SABBATW}, (*for
> that sabbath {SABBATOU} day was an high day*,) besought Pilate that their
> legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.

I think in both these examples, Bret, an actual Sabbath is meant rather than
the Passover day. Any Sabbath during the Passover week was a "high day" because
it was doubly significant: it reminded observers of God's rest on the 7th day,
and it reminded observers of the flight from Egypt (no- not an El Al flight!) -
and on both of these days there was to be no work. So, on the Passover week's
Sabbath, there was to be "doubly" no work done - if one can say that (I think
you get my drift). It did not matter whether the actual Passover meal was eaten
on a Sabbath, because any Sabbath during the entire Passover Week was a "high
day".
Best regards!
George Athas
 < gathas@mail.usyd.edu.au > Ph: 0414 839 964 (ICQ #5866591)
 (PhD Candidate, University of Sydney)
 (Tutor of Hebrew, Moore Theological College)
(Visit the Tel Dan Inscription Website at)
(http://www-personal.usyd.edu.au/~gathas/teldan.htm)



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