From: Ron J Macy (ronmacy@juno.com)
Date: Sat Jan 31 1998 - 14:22:31 EST
B-Greek,
I found this list in mid December of last year. I have had a great time
trying to keep up with all that there is to read and comprehend. I have
dug through many (by no means all, yet) of the archives just to see what
has been discussed over the years. It is amazing to me what is still
being questioned that I thought had been written in stone years ago. I
think it is great that people are still asking the tough questions about
what the Bible means. I think it is important for each generation to ask
the questions all over again and go through the thought processes in
order to make the faith truly our own.
I would like to go back to a question that came to my mind while reading
the discussions about John 1:1. Of course if this has already been
answered in the archives, please, just point me in the right direction
and I can dig it out on my own.
Many of you were writting from the perspective that Logos was a person in
verse 1. My question is: Is this determined linguistically or
theologically?
I can understand that verse 14 speaks of Logos being made flesh and
dwelling among us refers to Jesus. Part of the question, then is, is
there some linguistic situation that requires Logos in verse 1 to be
Jesus as well? If so, what? If not, could (would, should) Logos in verse
1 be something more encompasing than Jesus, based on the linguistics?
Thanks for your insights,
Ron Macy
Bible Student
Aurora, IL 60506
ronmacy@juno.com
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