From: Edgar Foster (dzetesis@mailexcite.com)
Date: Thu Mar 12 1998 - 09:17:15 EST
Dear B-Greekers,
True to my name (Dzetesis), I have a question concerning semantics.
Does the NT employ FILOSOFIAS in an absolutely pejorative sense? I.e., does Col.
2:8 or Acts 17:18 condemn philosophy in toto?
Some commentators assign a negative denotation to FILOSOFIAS, others say it has no
"meaning" apart from context. Then there is the argument that the word has an "unmarked
meaning" apart from context, but context provides the marked meaning.
Which is it?? :)
Thanks,
Edgar Foster
Classical Languages Major
fos@vvi.net
dzetesis@mailexcite.com
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