From: dalmatia@eburg.com
Date: Sat Apr 18 1998 - 11:17:16 EDT
Paul S. Dixon wrote:
> Even though the passage is a Johannine construct, the actual words spoken
> by Christ here seem especially germane to the argument. Of course, we do
> not know exactly what those words in Aramaic/Hebrew were. Nevertheless,
> if it could be determined that the Aramaic/Hebrew knew of no such
> equivalent distinction as found in the Greek AGAPAW and FILEW, and if the
> same word would have been used for both, then this would certainly
> support the synonymous interpretation of AGAPAS and FILEIS in Jn
> 21:15-17.
Hi Paul ~
You are quite right here, if the assumption is that Christ did NOT
speak Greek, or was not speaking Greek when these thoughts were
spoken. Given the heterogeneity of His hearers ~ [Romans, Greeks and
Jews] ~ And given the wide usage of Greek ~ I am very inclined to
think that He did indeed speak it, at least publicly. This is,
granted, a more private communication, so the issue seems rather
flexible-plexible! I think, for starters, we can assume that Christ
COULD speak Greek, eh?
George
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