From: Jim West (jwest@highland.net)
Date: Wed Jun 03 1998 - 11:08:55 EDT
Dale's claim that estin is NEVER used as a historical present drove me to
look again at Moulton, who says about the present in reported speech
referring to the past: "Not only after verbs of speaking, but also
perception and belief, the NT prefers the pres. tense in indirect discourse"
(vol 3, p. 64).
Now to say prefers is something quite different than saying "NEVER".
In order to justify the claim, Dale must examine every use of estin which
occurs in the NT. I would be very curious to read it if you have written it
up somewhere, Dale.
Best,
Jim
+++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Quartz Hill School of Theology
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