From: Bret Hicks (bret@maranatha.net)
Date: Tue Aug 25 1998 - 09:35:22 EDT
In his earlier post Dr. Powers stated that
Paul in addressing the AGAMOI (a term which
includes the divorced) first tells these people that it is preferable
for
them that they now remain unmarried, as he has done since the
termination
of his own marriage
I am presently studying divorce and remarriage in the Scripture and was
curious as to why you assert that Paul had been married previously. I
have heard this idea before, but am wondering what is the warrant. Is
there something in the Greek text which supports this thesis, or does it
arise from other sources/extra-biblical material? Any help would be
greatly appreciated.
In Christ the Lord,
Bret
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