From: Stevens, Charles C (Charles.Stevens@unisys.com)
Date: Tue Sep 29 1998 - 14:59:02 EDT
I am a VERY "little Greek" in this forum.
To me, THi MIAi TWN SABBATWN (Mark 16:2), for example, looks like an
idiom: literally, "the one of the week", which we today (and the KJV)
would translate as "the first [day] of the week". There seems to be
some other cases in which the KJV translates MIA and hEIS as "first"
rather than "one", and they also strike me as idiomatic, at least in
translation. Thus, "first" may well be an appropriate translation of
MIA in certain contexts, in order accurately to represent idiomatic
Greek in idiomatic English, but that by no means that it would be
appropriate to translate it that way in *all* contexts, only in idioms
like this. The primary meaning of the word hEIS indicates singularity,
not primacy, to me. See also Matthew 19:5, which directly quotes
Genesis 2:24 LXX "KAI ESONTAI hOI DUO EIS SARKA MIAN". Clearly "first"
is not appropriate in that verse.
If you are interested in proscriptions against polygamy from "other
testaments" that might be accepted by those that have proposed this
reading, I would endeavor to provide them, but ONLY OFFLINE AND IN
PRIVATE, as those documents, as well as any discussion about them,
including clarification of what groups accept them as relevant and what
groups do not, is wholly outside the framework of this forum.
-Chuck Stevens [SMTP: Charles.Stevens@unisys.com]
> ----------
> From: Mark & Mary Markham[SMTP:markhamm@topsurf.com]
> Sent: Tuesday, September 29, 1998 8:08 PM
> To: Biblical Greek
> Subject: 1 Tim 3:2--wife/woman/a wife/one woman/one wife
>
> Dear B-Greekers:
>
> I recently was directed to a site on the net to support the
> foolishness of
> pologamy (you see my thoughts already). In anattempt to claim that the
> Bible
> suppots such conceps the author takes some liberties with some NT
> verses in
> 1 Timothy. His claims are as follows:
>
> <quote> The "one wife" spoken of in 1 Timothy 3:2 & 3:12 and in
> Titus 1:6
> can also be translated as "a wife" since elsewhere, the same greek
> word
> "mia" as used in these verses is translated as "a". See Matthew 21:19
> "a fig
> tree" Matthew 26:69 "a maid" or "a servant girl" Revelation 9:13 "a
> voice".
> This would make the verse translate "husband of a wife" meaning that
> he must
> be a married man.
>
> "The "one wife" spoken of in 1Timothy 3:2 & 3:12 and in Titus 1:6 is
> translated elsewhere as first. For example, in Mat 28:1, Mark 16:1 & 2
> and
> in Acts 20:7 the writer uses the same greek word "mia" as used in
> these
> verses addressed to Timothy and Titus when referring to the first day
> of the
> week. Therefore "husband of first wife" would be a possible rendering.
>
> Could it be this means that this is the first time she's been a wife?
> First time wife as opposed to a second or more time wife? "</quote>
>
> It is my understanding that this one wife concept is foolish-- in fact
> as I
> see the verse in 1 Tim 3:2 it means a "ONE WOMAN MAN".
>
> Please shed more light here and help my understanding.
>
> Sincerely,
>
> Mark Markham
> markhamm@topsurf.com
> CBC Heidelberg, Germany
>
>
>
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