From: Maurice A. O'Sullivan (mauros@iol.ie)
Date: Thu Feb 11 1999 - 19:51:36 EST
At 23:24 11/02/98 +0100, Mark wrote:
>If I understand the meaning of the word slander as used in Greek-- it can be
>true info used negitively. Can anyone else confirm this >understanding?
According to BAGD,
DIABALLW means to bring charges w. hostile intent,
either falsely and slanderously (BGU 1040, 22; POxy. 900, 13; 4 Macc 4:1;
Jos., Ant. 7, 267)
or justly (Hdt. 8, 22, 3; Thu. 3, 4, 4; Aristoph., Thesm. 1169;
Philostratus, Ep. 37; PTebt. 23, 4; Da 3:8; 2 Macc 3:11; Jos., Ant. 12, 176)
and it helpfully points to the dative AUTWi as in:
(dat. as Hdt. 5, 35; Pla., Rep. 8, 566b al.;
BTW, the _unjust_ example from Josephus above relates to David, and the
fact that
>> Now he had been unjustly calumniated to the king by Ziba, his steward. <<
whereas the _just_ use of the term is when:
>> Joseph accused the bidders, as having agreed together to estimate the
value of the taxes at too low a rate; and he promised that he would himself
give twice as much for them;<<
But to see _all_ the meanings of this verb, and their usage in context, why
not go to:
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/setdisplay?prog=/cgi-bin/morphindex&dis
play=SMK&lang=Greek&corpus=2.0&author=
[ Watch that wrap --- enter it all on one line ]
Hope this helps
Regards,
Maurice
Maurice A. O'Sullivan
[Bray, Ireland]
'Mythology is what never was but always is.'
--- Stephen of Byzantium.
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