From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Wed Apr 28 1999 - 08:47:13 EDT
William Steo sent me off-list this reply to my response to his initial post
to the list last Friday, clarifying that he would like illustrations in
English--and I think it quite possible that some list-members may be able
to help him, and raising a Greek question to which I have one answer and
others may able to suggest one or more other answers as well.
>From: "WST" <wst@frederickmd.com>
>To: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu>
>Subject: Re: graphic illustrations of forms in any text
>Date: Tue, 27 Apr 1999 22:23:52 -0400
>
> Thanks for your reply to my first, somewhat impulsive message.
>I don't need my Greek in color, and to my current students, Greek
>in any color would be only a foreign language.
> They hear me refer to the Infancy narratives as, possibly, a
>eucharistic playlet, and verses in Paul as a bit of poetry
>borrowed from a pagan. My hope is that someone has published a
>NT -- in English -- which somehow graphically, in color or
>otherwise, identifies the different literary forms. I am dealing
>with people with a primitive understanding of the evolution of the
>NT, and I am myself not a NT scholar although I can use the Greek.
You are certainly welcome on the list to participate at whatever level you
choose; although there are other academic loudmouths like myself on the
list, there are really quite a few neophytes and also laypeople, students,
and pastors endeavoring to use Greek in their own ministries. You are
welcome to lurk or raise and/or answer questions as you feel inclined.
> I joined the forum primarily to listen in, and learn. Anent
>this fact: May I ask you whether it would be tolerable to ask a
>learner's question like the following (formed while reading one
>discussion):
> Can not OU occur, with the same scope and meaning,
>*after* as well as *before* the term it modifies?
Yes, I think it can, at least sometimes, although it generally appears
immediately before the word it negates. However it is not uncommon for an
OU (or MH) to negate an entire clause, in which case it can appear in what
may seem an odd position. It occurs to me that your question may be
prompted by our recent discussion of 1 Cor 15:51 PANTES OU KOIMHQHSOMEQA,
PANTES DE ALLAGHSOMEQA. In this instance, others may disagree with me, but
my own opinion is that PANTES is not directly negated, that it is out front
ahead of an OU that negates the entire clause because PANTES is the
rhetorically emphasized word.
On the other hand, an OU that negates an entire clause or that negates an
elliptical element from a previous clause may appear at the very end, e.g.:
TOUS MEN ALHQH LEGONTAS EPAINW, TOUS DE YEUDOMENOUS OU.
"I approve of truth-tellers, but not of liars." (where EPAINW is
not repeated but clearly understood as the word negated by OU)
I don't know whether this would really qualify, however, to be termed a
negative particle that comes AFTER the word it negates; rather the word it
negates is simply understood.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
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