From: Edgar Krentz (ekrentz@lstc.edu)
Date: Mon May 10 1999 - 12:09:57 EDT
>Hi
>
>Does any one have any thoughts on the word hOMOIWQHNAI in Heb 2:17? To
>what extent *like*? Is English adequate to express what this is saying
>in the Greek? There are those who would want to make this to mean
>*equal*, but to me that seems to be stretching he word, mood and tense
>a bit. Or does this link with the earlier phrase, as some translate,
>KATA PANTA?
>
>John
You raise an interesting question, which reverberates in Pau'ls use of
hOMOIWMA in Rom 8:3 [cf. 6:5] and Phil 2:7. Years ago Ernst Kaesemann
suggested in his lectures on NT theology that there is a doctiral
dissertation lurking in this noun and related verbs in the NT. It remains
to be written.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Edgar Krentz
Professor of New Testament Emeritus
Lutheran School of Theology at Chicago
1100 E. 55th Street
Chicago, IL 60615 USA
773-256-0752
e-mail: ekrentz@lstc.edu (Office)
emkrentz@mcs.com (Home)
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