From: Steven Craig Miller (scmiller@www.plantnet.com)
Date: Sat Oct 16 1999 - 14:59:38 EDT
<x-flowed>To: Jeffrey B. Gibson,
<< If PORNEIA does not refer to incestuous relationships, I would
translate Matt. 19:9 as "If any man divorces his wife for any reason -- the
grounds of PORNEIA notwithstanding, he ...." >>
Joseph A. Fitzmyer (1981:105n39) has written:
<< Tortuous attempts to read these phrases as other than "exceptive" have
to be recognized for what they really are, subterfuges to avoid the obvious. >>
I would assume that you would disagree, yes? What grammatical reason
justify such a translation? (I'm really wanting to know and understand this
as best I can.)
-Steven Craig Miller
Alton, Illinois (USA)
scmiller@www.plantnet.com
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