Re: Question on John 8:32

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Tue Oct 26 1999 - 08:49:02 EDT

At 7:27 AM -0500 10/26/99, Steven Craig Miller wrote:
>To: Robert W Meyers,
>
>And as for the (supposed) parallels you listed (i.e., 1 Peter 2:2; Rom
>6:2,7), it is not clear to me that the author of John had ever read either
>1 Peter or Romans, or that either of these works were a direct influence
>upon the gospel of John.

I'm afraid that both that original suggestion of parallels and the present
comment on it fall into category of hermeneutical assumptions regarding how
one may legitimately interpret a text in one document in terms of
substantive content of a text in another document. What I mean to say is
that this is a matter whereon there is, I would guess, considerable
difference of opinion among list-members, some holding that one should NOT
adduce evidence for the meaning of a text within a particular author from a
document composed by another author, while others hold that any Biblical
text may be used to interpret any other Biblical text. The question is one
we've had attention called to on more than one occasion recently: How
extensive is the CONTEXT within which a particular text may legitimately be
interpreted? And precisely that question is, I believe, a significant bone
of contention between hermeneutical approaches of different individuals and
groups of our list-members. Let's steer clear of that, shall we, please.

Carl W. Conrad
Co-Chair, B-Greek List
Department of Classics, Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/ 

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