RE: John 8:58 (I am; Does the Hebrew reveal?)

From: Steven Craig Miller (scmiller@www.plantnet.com)
Date: Fri Dec 24 1999 - 13:35:06 EST


<x-flowed>To: Bill Ross,

SCM: << What is clear here is that the words hO WN ("the one who is") are
the key words here. It is the phrase hO WN which is repeated and which
stand for the name of Yahweh, and not the words EGW EIMI. This is
absolutely clear in the LXX: >>

BR: << In amazing brevity [at Ex 3:14] He revealed that He is the "One that
Is, the One the Was, and the One Who Will Be." When Jesus said "I AM,"
although He was not using the Septuagint phrase, the
Name that is still unspoken by Jews except in prayer, He did wonderfully
and poetically declare that He "IS" in a timeless sense. >>

In my opinion, there is absolutely no grammatical justification for
assuming that the Greek words EGW EIMI can << wonderfully and poetically
declare that He "IS" in a timeless sense. >> That seems to me to be a
grammatical fallacy. But rather than merely stating that I disagree with
your assertion. Let me ask, where did you pick up this notion? I would be
curious to learn, what grammarians or biblical scholars hold this position
which you have just presented?

-Steven Craig Miller
Alton, Illinois (USA)
scmiller@www.plantnet.com
Disclaimer: "I'm just a simple house-husband (with no post-grad degree),
what do I know?"

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