From: Eric R. Welch (welch@netease.net)
Date: Wed Jan 12 2000 - 22:39:18 EST
1. If they do not "hold fast" to the gospel they had received (which they
were in danger of doing by some of the teachings concerning the
resurrection and the consequences of such teaching13-19--cf. v. 12), they
would not be saved by it. Rejection of this teaching would mean forfeiting
their salvation. If that were not possible, then Paul would not have
written to correct the teaching.
2. The switch to the present in katexete is probably meant to show that
continual holding fast to the gospel preached as a condition of future
salvation in the end.
3. I do not know of any reasons why 'me' is used for an idicative verb
except to say that it is one of those exceptions to the rules of Koine
Greek. Does Paul use this construction anywhere else that you would be
familiar with?
Hope this helps a bit.
Eric Welch
On 12/30/99, "George Goolde <goolde@mtnempire.net>" wrote:
> Dear B-Greekers,
>
> I am preparing a student notebook which includes an exegesis of 1 Cor
> 15:1-5. In studying 1 Cor 15:2 I have some exegetically challenging
> questions. Can you help?
>
> The text reads:
>
> DI' OU KAI SWZESQH TINI LOGW EUHGGELISAMHN UMIN, EI KATEXETE, EKTOS EI MH
> EIKH EPISTEUSATE.
>
> My questions are these:
>
> 1. What is the significance of EI KATEXETE ?
> 2. Why the verb tense change between KATEXETE and EPISTEUSATE ?
> 3. I understand the pleonasm of EKTOS EI MH but I am surprised that MH
> rather than OU is used with an indicative verb. Any ideas why?
> 4. Do you take EKTOS EI MH as a negated 1CC ?
> 5. What is the structural relationship between EI KATEXETE and EKTOS EI MH
> EPISTEUSATE
>
> I would appreciate answers to any and all of these questions. Thanks in
> advance.
>
> George
>
>
>
> George A. Goolde
> Professor, Bible and Theology
> Southern California Bible College & Seminary
> El Cajon, California
>
> goolde@mtnempire.net
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