From: Jay Adkins (JAdkins264@aol.com)
Date: Thu Mar 23 2000 - 08:08:19 EST
Question. I was thinking about Wayne's comments about the ""Bible study"
approach to the meanings of Greek words, instead of the rigorous scholarly
effort that needs to be made.." It is evident that a "Bible study
approach" certainly would be flawed as a general means of finding word
meaning to Koine terms. Yet, is it not reasonable to suppose that some
terms have been altered by the sectarian use? Almost every field of
endeavor develops its own jargon. Sometimes even otherwise common terms
take on special meaning within certain contexts. I do realize the pitfalls
of trying to find a special Holy Ghost language, but are we going to far to
the other end when we deny the possibility that even a few terms may have
been Christianized?
Does the corpus of the NT supply a sufficient context base from which to
identify some such terms within its pages?
I hope these questions are understood for what they are, questions. Given
the recent discussion on AGAPH, it may be assumed I have an agenda. I can
only give my word that I do not. I hope also that these are appropriate
questions for B-Greek.
Sola Gratia,
Jay Adkins
Always Under Grace!
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