From: JFantin@aol.com
Date: Sun Apr 16 2000 - 00:49:33 EDT
Joe Fantin writes:
<<<<2. On the surface I agree with the Stein quote mentioned: "An imperative
is an imperative, is an imperative." However, it is easy to confuse
"imperative" with "command." Some of the problem with imperative analysis
is the terminology. I share gfsomsel's frustration with the term "permission"
as a label for a usage of the imperative. My research of the imperative
has caused me to conclude that the essence of the mood is volitional (and
to some extent 'directive' using a term from speech act theory--using the
term with its primary meaning within the theory without
full acceptance of the theory). >>>>
gfsomsel replies:
> No, an imperative is not simply a command. It can be used in a
> slightly different sense as well. Cf. the Merriam-Webster Collegiate
> dictionary entry s.v. "imperative."
>
> im*per*a*tive [1] (adjective)
> [Middle English imperatyf, from Late Latin imperativus, from Latin
> imperatus, past participle of imperare to command -- more at EMPEROR]
>
> First appeared 15th Century
>
> 1 a : of, relating to, or constituting the grammatical mood that
> expresses the will to influence the behavior of another
>
> So an imperative could signify an entreaty or exhortation as well
> as command
First, I am not sure if you are disagreeing with my point. Forgive me if I
was unclear. By using the terms "volitional" and "directive" I was
attempting to cast a larger net for the imperative than simply "command."
Second, though I agree with much of your dictionary definition of the
imperative you quote, I have a few concerns about the use of this in the
present discussion. A. This is the description of the English imperative and
its development from Latin and Middle English. This may not be applicable to
Greek (though there does seem to be much in common with Greek). B. The
definition states the development from the 15th century. C. And most
importantly, though I assume a morphological imperative mood may have existed
in English at some time, modern English does not parallel the Greek system.
The Greek morphological imperative mood contrasts with the indicative,
subjunctive and optative. However, the English imperative is a sentence type
(not a "mood" proper in the sense of the Greek imperative which has distinct
imperative morphology) which contrasts with the declarative and
interrogative. My distinction here may seem too picky for some but I believe
it is based on sound linguistic theory (see for example John Lyons, Semantics
[Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1977], 633-35, 745-46).
> So an imperative could signify an entreaty or exhortation as well
> as command.
Also, I suggest the imperative mood may have other uses as well (e.g.,
advice, warning, etc.).
[snip about "permissive" impv]
> It is even more apparent that Eph 4.26 cannot be "permissive."
> ORGIZESQE KAI MH hAMARTANETE
>
> This is not allowing something to happen. The subject addressed by the
> imperative also effects the act. "Be angry and/but do not sin." This is
not
> "It's OK to be angry", but "Go ahead, do it."
I agree. This is not an example of a permissive imperative. Also, Wallace
would agree. He classifies this as a "command" not permission. (see p. 492
CD).
Joe Fantin
Sheffield
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