From: Steven R. Lo Vullo (sundoulos1@netzero.net)
Date: Sun Apr 23 2000 - 20:25:59 EDT
<x-charset iso-8859-1>Carlton,
There is another case of hINA with the present indicative (FUSIOUSQE) by
Paul in 1 Corinthians 4:6 (interestingly enough, another omicron contract),
which seems to be a clear example of a purpose clause (cf. also GINWSKOMEN
in Aleph A B* L P 049. 33. 81. 614 al of 1 John 5:20). Paul's purpose in
saying what he did about himself and Apollos was "so that none of you will
be puffed up in favor of one against another" (NRSV). It seems to be more
coherent in the context of Gal 4:17 to take hINA ZHLOUTE in the same way,
i.e., as a purpose clause. The sense would be that the teachers troubling
the Galatians were zealous to win them over, but with the improper purpose
(cf. v. 18) of having the Galatians be zealous for them, i.e., follow them
and submit to their teachings. This is consistent with other statements of
Paul in the letter as to the motivating factors underlying the false
teachers' efforts. He ascribes the motive of selfish pride to their work
when he says of them in 6:12, "Those who want to make a good impression
outwardly are trying to compel you to be circumcised" (NIV) and in 6:13
where he claims "they want you to be circumcised so that they may boast
about your flesh" (NRSV). So, according to Paul, the purpose of the false
teachers was not to build up the Galatians spiritually, but to build up
their own reputations by winning over the Galatians as trophies to their
teaching efforts and doctrine. Their purpose was to gain a following (hINA
AUTOUS ZHLOUTE) with the purpose of building up their own prestige.
God bless,
Steve LoVullo
----- Original Message -----
From: "Carlton Winbery" <winberyc@speedgate.net>
To: "Biblical Greek" <b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Sunday, April 23, 2000 5:09 PM
Subject: Re: imperative moods?
> Polycarp replied to bwmeyers;
>
> >In a message dated 4/22/2000 7:53:42 AM Central Standard Time,
> >bwmeyers@juno.com writes:
> >
> ><< "But covet earnestly the best gifts: ... "KJV; and
> > a sampling of other versions, Douay, NIV,
> > RSV, YLT all seem to agree that this to be
> > rendered as an imperative.
> >
> > So does the commentator AT Robertson.
> >
> > Yet John Gill wrote:
> >
> > > Which may be rendered either indicatively as
> > > an assertion, "ye do covet earnestly the best gifts":
> > > . . .
> > > or, by way of interrogation, "do ye covet earnestly
> > > the best gifts?"
> > > . . .
> > > or imperatively, as an exhortation, as it is rendered by
> > > our translators: . . .
> >
> > So, is there no way, from the Grk alone, to distinguish between
> > the imperative, indicative, or interrogative moods?
> >
> > And likewise, in the next clause, Robertson and Gill both
> > seem to indicate that the AGAPH of the following chapter
> > may not be just another of the forementioned gifts, but rather
> > the proper means of seeking those aforementioned gifts:
> >
> > Is there no way grammatically to tell whether agaph is being
> > given as "the best gift," or whether agaph is something of
> > another class than a gift, entirely?
> >
> > Also, on Heb. 13:4, the KJV gives "Marriage is honorable
> > in all," that is, as a declarative.
> >
> > However, it makes much more sense to read, as my "best"
> > commentators do, "Let marriage be honorable in all, for
> > whoremongers and adulterers God will judge." But the
> > impression they give is that it is impossible to tell whether
> > the mood is declarative or imperative as far as Grk grammar
> > alone is concerned. >>
> >
> >First, a little advice. When you refer to a passage, it is a good idea
to
> >cite its location. I have the Logos software and thus had no trouble
> >locating it, but not everyone has this resource.
>
> Amen to this, so I'll reproduce it here 1 Cor. 12:31 ZHLOUTE DE TA
> CARISMATA TA MEIZONA.
> ZHLOUTE (as Polycarp observes) can be either indicative or imperative by
> form. This is the case with all 2nd person plural present imperatives. In
> the aorist the lack of the augment with the 2nd pl. imperative
> distinguishes it from the indicative.
>
> >Regarding your question:
> >
> >Taken strictly abstractly, Gill is correct. ZHLOUTE can be indicative or
> >imperative as far as its form is concerned (It is indicative in Gal
4.17).
> >There is always the consideration in reading any work, however, of the
> >context in which something is found (even if this is English -- cf. the
word
> >"read". Should it be present indicative, past indicative, or
imperative?).
> >In cases where the form itself is ambiguous, only the context can tell
you
> >what the meaning is.
>
> The mention of Gal. 4:17 is very interesting since it is used here as the
> verb in a hINA clause. (hINA AUTOUS ZHLOUTE) As such the hINA is probably
> more like an adverb of place, thus "in the situation where you zealously
> seek them." If we go with the western reading (hINA ZHLOUTE DE TA KREITTW
> CARISMATA, D, F, G, a, b, and Ambrosiaster). In this situation it could be
> an imperative, "In this situation seek zealously the greater gifts." This
> reading was surely inspired by the passage in 1 Cor12. I have a note in an
> old bible (N-A19) that I copied from the older version used by Thayer,
> Grimm-Wilke where he list the use of hINA with the indicative as a
solecism
> found in Helenistic Greek. However, I think I remember that Liddell/Scott
> list hIN as having an adverbial use of place with the present or imperfect
> tenses going back to Homer. I'll take time to look it up later or Carl
will
> correct me.
>
>
>
>
> Dr. Carlton L. Winbery
> Foggleman Professor of Religion
> Louisiana College
> winbery@speedgate.net
> winbery@andria.lacollege.edu
> Ph. 1 318 448 6103 hm
> Ph. 1 318 487 7241 off
>
>
>
> ---
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>
>
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