From: Maxey (maxey@zianet.com)
Date: Thu Apr 27 2000 - 05:03:06 EDT
<x-charset iso-8859-1>I would like to ask a question concerning the significance of the present
tense for "commits adultery" in the Matthew 19:9 passage. Some suggest that
since this term appears in the present tense that this suggests ongoing
action. In other words, the second union is a *continuous* action of
adultery (characterized by some as "living in sin"). Can such a view be
sustained by an appeal to the present tense in this passage?
And further, can the present tense in Greek be used to signify something
other than continuous action, and if so are there examples of such in the NT
writings?
Any information you can give me on this would be of tremendous help. Thank
you!
Al Maxey
"Nothing in the world is more dangerous than
sincere ignorance and conscientious stupidity."
http://www.zianet.com/maxey
http://www.zianet.com/maxey/CubaAve.htm
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