From: Eric S. Weiss (eweiss@gte.net)
Date: Thu Apr 27 2000 - 12:29:17 EDT
I Cor. 14:27-28 usually is interpreted/translated to mean that at most two
or three persons should speak in tongues in a church meeting. But Paul
keeps the pronouns and verbs in the singular, whereas in vs. 29ff. when he
similarly discusses prophesying as being also limited to "two or three," he
uses plural nouns and verbs. So, is it possible to translate or interpret
vs. 27-28 as meaning something like only one person speaking in tongues,
but that same person is asked to stop after giving at most two or three
messages/utterances (or maybe 2 or 3 phrases or even words) before his
words are "interpreted" (either by him or someone else)?
--Eric Weiss non-scholar, non-academic, just 2+ years of Greek
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