From: clayton stirling bartholomew (c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Fri Oct 20 2000 - 17:33:58 EDT
on 10/20/00 1:36 PM, Mike Sangrey wrote:
> Could the Greek of Revelation be that way because the intended audience
> was Palestinian Jews?
The Greek of Apocalypse is not all that hard to understand. Line for line
Paul's epistles have more grammatical anomalies than the Apocalypse. I have
just been pouring over chapter two of Colossians again and it seems that
"The apostle, in the ardor of his mind, has not attended to the syntax"
(*Trollope).
The difficulties encountered in understanding the Apocalypse are for the
most part not linguistic difficulties. If John had written it in English we
would be not much better off than we are now. Richmond Lattimore, when he
translated the book said that it was a book that almost translated itself.
This, of course, assumes that the translation is going to be literal and not
some sort of interpretive paraphrase. Lattimore was not given to paraphrase.
Now for your question. My off the cuff response with absolutely no research
on the question is "I doubt it." If the letters to the seven churches are
any indication the *authors* primary intended audience of this letter was
churches in Asia Minor and thereabouts. This is a complex topic and it is
off topic so I will leave it at that.
Clay
--
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
*Trollope is quoted in Comm. on Colossians (1865), by John Eadie , Col.
2:14 p.162. Eadie quotes Trollope to disagre with him.
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