From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Sat Dec 02 2000 - 14:27:40 EST
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The following comments by Stanley Porter got me
thinking about how we can distinguish GREEK grammar
from ENGLISH grammar.
In other words, it seems that at times we translate a particular
participle one way because it makes ENGLISH sense.
Before I continue, here is Dr. Porter's comments on the
"verb-modifying participle" and its syntactical relation
to other elements:
------
These relations, however, are for the most part not grammaticalized but
are inferred from context and tend to be subject to much discussion
and debate. [p. 190]
In some instances it may simply be better not to specify the relations
between the participle and the other elements of the construction,
since the context does not give specific indicators. [p. 191]
-----
Immediately after this statement (p. 191) he discusses CONCESSIVE
participles. He translates Mt. 7:11 in this manner:
hUMEIS PONHROI ONTES OIDATE DOMATA AGAQA DIDONAI
"you, although you are evil, know to give good gifts." (Porter)
Where perhaps a "literal" (GREEK?) translation might look thus:
"you, being evil, know to give good gifts"
To me, either translation makes sense, but which makes more
sense to a Koine Greek reader? Which makes more sense
to an English reader?
My question is if we say this could be translated as a CONCESSIVE
participle, is that because it makes good sense in ENGLISH?
How do we know when we are defining GREEK GRAMMAR as
opposed to translating according to ENGLISH GRAMMAR or sense?
Thank you,
Mark Wilson
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