From: Harold R. Holmyard III (hholmyard@ont.com)
Date: Sat Jan 06 2001 - 10:53:51 EST
>Dear Dmitriy,
You write:
friends:
>1Cor 1:2 says:
>... KLHTOIS hAGIOIS SUN PASIN TOIS EPIKALOUMENOIS TO ONOMA TOU KURIOU
>hHMWN IHSOU CRISTOU EN PANTI TOPW AUTWN KAI hHMWN.
>It means:
>... called [to be] saints, with all that call upon the name of our Lord
>Jesus Christ in every place, their and ours.
>The question is:
>is there any possibility to recognize if "their and ours" refers to Jesus
>or to "every place".
It seems clear to me that Paul is referring to Jesus as our Lord and their
Lord. Paul first said that Jesus was "our Lord." It could possibly be
misunderstood to mean that he was not the Lord of others who call on the
name of the Lord in other places. So one reason for adding the clarifying
phrase "ours and theirs" may be to show that Paul acknowledged that Jesus
was equally the Lord of all others who call upon the name of the Lord
everywhere.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
Dallas, TX
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