From: Christian Cryder (christianc@granitepeaks.com)
Date: Tue Feb 06 2001 - 11:14:46 EST
Hi Carl,
> In fact hUMAS is plural;
Whoops, of course. Not sure what I was thinking when I said that. ;-)
> One cannot, in fact, always be absolutely sure: there are some
> striking instances of ambiguity, but normally the first of two
> accusatives in the vicinity of an infinitive that requires an
> accusative subject is in fact the subject of it while the later
> accusative is the object. This is actually a rather common
> construction in NT Greek.
Great. That's what I was wondering...I noticed several other examples like
this in the first chapter of Phil.
Thanks much,
Christian
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Lutris Technologies, Inc.
christianc@lutris.com
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> -----Original Message-----
> From: bounce-b-greek-126366@franklin.oit.unc.edu
> [mailto:bounce-b-greek-126366@franklin.oit.unc.edu]On Behalf Of Carl W.
> Conrad
> Sent: Tuesday, February 06, 2001 4:03 AM
> To: Biblical Greek
> Cc: Biblical Greek
> Subject: [b-greek] Re: Question about Phil 1:7
>
>
> At 9:28 PM -0800 2/5/01, Christian Cryder wrote:
> >Hi, I have a question about the phrase in Phil 1:7 -- DIA TO
> EXEIN ME EN TH
> >KARDIA HUMAS
> >
> >Specifically, I am wondering why ME and HUMAS are _both_ sing.
> acc? I know
> >most versions trasnalate this to the effect of "because I have you in my
> >heart", but in this case I would expect to ME in its genitive
> form TOU MOU.
> >Given the fact that both both ME and HUMAS are the same case,
> what is basis
> >for preferring "I have you in my heart" over and above "you have
> me in your
> >heart"? I'm just wondering if someone can shed some light on this for me.
>
> In fact hUMAS is plural; although that is not evident in an English
> translation, where the plural "you" has long been used for the older
> singular "thou"it is crystal clear in Greek, where the two pronouns are
> unmistakably different.
>
> The text of the part of 1:7 in question: DIA TO ECEIN ME EN THi
> KARDIAi hUMAS
>
> This is an instance of what's usually termed an "articular infinitive: the
> article TO substantivizes the entire unit ECEIN ME EN THi KARDIAi hUMAS
> (lit. "me to have you in the (= my) heart") allows the whole unit to
> function as a noun--as in this instance the whole unit is an object of the
> preposition DIA.
>
> ME is accusative because it is the subject of the infinitive ECEIN, while
> hUMAS is accusative because it is the object of the same infinitive.
>
> Finally, how can we determine which accusative pronoun is the subject and
> which the object? One cannot, in fact, always be absolutely sure:
> there are
> some striking instances of ambiguity, but normally the first of two
> accusatives in the vicinity of an infinitive that requires an accusative
> subject is in fact the subject of it while the later accusative is the
> object. This is actually a rather common construction in NT Greek.
>
> I hope that helps.
>
>
>
> --
>
> Carl W. Conrad
> Department of Classics/Washington University
> One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
> Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
> cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
> WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
>
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