From: Richard Allan Stauch (RStauch@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Thu Jun 28 2001 - 22:35:45 EDT
I have a question concerning the Greek grammatical construction of John
5:18b, and the import that someone has insisted the construction implies.
Here is the text according to the UBS GNT3:
DIA TOUTO OUN MALLON EZHTOUN AUTON hOI IOUDAIOI APOKTEINAI,
hOTI OU MONON ELUEN TO SABBATON,
ALLA KAI PATERA IDION ELEGEN TON QEON ISON hEAUTON POIWN TWi QEWi.
The second line above is what we were talking about. To state his case in
short (and I sincerely hope that this is not considered "out of bounds" as a
matter of interpretation, but my correspondent insists that this is actually
a matter of Greek grammar): The construction of hOTI with the indicative
verb (ELUEN in this case) necessarily means that the author believes what
follows hOTI within its clause to be true. That is, not that it was believed
to be true by those mentioned in the primary clause, but that on John's
authority ELUEN TO SABBATON was in fact true.
Additionally, I understand (correct me if I am wrong) that John's grammar
was, to some degree, unsophisticated by comparison with (for instance) Paul
and Luke. That is to say, in the Gospel at any rate, the number of
grammatical forms are limited. Is it possible, considering the answer to the
last is "yes," that 1st-Century Galilean provincials understood this type of
construction differently than 6th-Century Greeks did?
Please, help me with the grammatical construction. Thanks, in advance.
Richard Allan Stauch
Long Beach, CA
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