[b-greek] Re: A question on Philippians 4

From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Wed Jul 25 2001 - 11:29:51 EDT


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Jonathan wrote:

>"You (plural) let it be known" captures most of this, but not the
>distinction between aorist imperative and present imperative. The present
>imperative would imply an ongoing or habitual activity. The aorist
>imperative implies something that should be done as a simple action.


Is there really a material difference in either command? It seems to
me that both the Pres. and Aorist Imperatives command the same behavior, the
difference is only in HOW a writer wants to present
the command.

Just as in the gospels, the same event is described by one
writer using the Present, while another writer chooses to use the
Aorist.

I wonder if the Pres. Imp. stresses the need to initiate the behavior
NOW (rather than in some "on-going, continual" fashion), and the Aor. Imp.
stresses the need to behave a certain way ALWAYS (as a rule).
The Pres. Imp. would also imply remaining (always) obedient, as well as the
Aor. Imp. would imply that the behavior should begin immediately (now).

I guess for some reason I tend to NOT see the Present Tense as
something of an ON-GOING, CONTINUAL nature, but rather something
of a NOW nature.

Any thoughts?

Mark Wilson


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