[b-greek] Re: A question on Philippians 4

From: Alan B. Thomas (a_b_thomas@yahoo.com)
Date: Wed Jul 25 2001 - 14:36:35 EDT


Mark

You wrote....

> I wonder if the Pres. Imp. stresses the need to
> initiate the behavior
> NOW (rather than in some "on-going, continual"
> fashion), and the Aor. Imp.
> stresses the need to behave a certain way ALWAYS (as
> a rule).
> The Pres. Imp. would also imply remaining (always)
> obedient, as well as the
> Aor. Imp. would imply that the behavior should begin
> immediately (now).


I think you are correct in this sense: in this
context, a Greek reader would not RESPOND differently
based on whether the command was in the Present or
Aorist.

Regardless of which tense is used, the one issuing the
command would be urging the same behavior, a behavior
that one should enter into immediately, or if one is
already demonstrating such behavior, to continue in
like fashion. That one should "continue" in such
behavior, behave this way "as a rule," or begin such
and such behavior NOW, is not a part of the tense
function. That would be understood at a higher
(contextual/lexical) level.

Your hesitancy in seeing a continuous, on-going aspect
to the Present tense I believe is well-founded.




=====
Sincerely,

Alan B. Thomas

"There may be no way out, but there
is always a way up."

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