From: Steven R. Lo Vullo (doulos@appleisp.net)
Date: Mon Sep 17 2001 - 17:48:16 EDT
on 9/17/01 7:25 AM, Rbsads@aol.com at Rbsads@aol.com wrote:
> Lk 16.8a KAI EPHiNESEN O KURIOS TON OIKONOMON THS ADIKIAS
>
> Lk 16.9b hEAUTOIS POIHSATE QILOUS EK TOU MAMWNA THS ADIKIAS
> If the genitive is attributive then, why does the Greek use the genitive of
> attribution rather that using a simple adjective? If the genitive in this
> construction simply communicates an attribute of the manager and of wealth
> then the most clear construction would seem to be an adjective.
It seems the attributive genitive for the most part reflects Semitic
influence. Wallace and Robertson suggest it is similar in its semantic force
to a simple adjective, but more emphatic.
--
Steve Lo Vullo
Madison, WI
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