[b-greek] Re: To Shame or not To Shame

From: boyd@huxcomm.net
Date: Sun Feb 17 2002 - 16:05:38 EST


Jeff Fisher wrote:
<<Can anyone explain how this might be translated so that it
would not appear as a contradiction? Or is it a contradiction?

1 Corinthians 4:14 I am not writing this to shame you, but to warn
you, as my dear children.

1 Corinthians 6:5 I say this to shame you. Is it possible that there
is nobody among you wise enough to judge a dispute between
believers?>>

I don't think that there's a contradiction here at all. The first part of
1 Cor. 4:14 says, OUK ENTREPWN hUMAS GRAQW TAUTA.
The TAUTA ("these things") must refer back to what he has just
written, not to the letter as a whole. In this paragraph he does not
want to "shame" them, but to "warn" them.

Two chapters later he tackles a different topic in which he feels it is
necessary to "shame" (PROS ENTROPHN hUMIN LEGW) them.
Paul has simply chosen different methods of communicating his
message to them. In one instance, he warns them, while in
another he shames them.

Jonathan Boyd
Huxley, IA




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