[b-greek] Re: Mat 26:75 and Mat 27:8

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Mon Mar 04 2002 - 13:28:51 EST


At 9:21 AM -0800 3/4/02, B. D. Colt wrote:
>In working through Matthew's Passion narrative, I have run into a
>couple of questions which I hope some of you can help me with.
>
>l. Mat 26:75
>KAI EMNHSQH hO PETROS TOU hRHMATOS IHSOU
>EIRHKOTOS OTI PRIN ALEKTORA FWNHSAI TRIS
>APARNHSHi ME:
>
>Is there some grammatical reason that TRIS must modify APARNHSHi
>and not FWNHSAI? Of course, in this case the context makes it
>obvious, but in a different context, might the TRIS modify a preceding
>verb rather than a following one?

Yes; in fact, you might note the parallel passage in Mk 14:72, where DIS
refers to FWNHSAI, TRIS to APARNHSHi: KAI EUQUS EK DEUTEROU ALEKTWR
EFWNHSEN. KAI ANEMNHSQH hO PETROS TO hRHMA hWS EIPEN AUTWi hO IHSOUS hOTI
PRIN ALEKTORA FWNSAI DIS TRIS ME APARNHSHi. Some would argue that Mark's
version is earlier and has been redacted by Matthew, but that's not a
question to argue here.

>
>2. Mat 27:8
>
>DIO EKLHQH hO AGROS EKEINOS AGROS hAIMATOS
>hEWS THS SHMERON
>
>The information pop-up (in Logos) says that SEMERON is an adverb,
>and so does BAGD. So what's with the article? I note several
>instances cited in BAGD where SEMERON has an article, but I can't
>find anything to explain it. Wallace might well cover it, but I can't
>guess where from the Table of Contents. Maybe someone with a
>paper copy can refer me?

the article can turn any word, adverb or other, into a substantive; in this
instance the substantive is feminine because the noun hHMERA is understood.
--

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months:: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad@ioa.com
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/

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