From: Polycarp66@aol.com
Date: Wed Apr 03 2002 - 20:57:24 EST
In a message dated 4/3/2002 1:39:33 PM Eastern Standard Time,
backusfam1@bluefrognet.net writes:
hWS DE HN EN TOIS hIEROSOLUMOIS EN TWi PASXA . . .
My question is in regard to John 2:23 as to the use of the dative plural
of the
word Jerusalem in the Greek text. Why is this in the plural form? In
numerous
other passages the singular form is used, but for some reason he used the
plural here. Can you shed some light on this? I understand that the word
Jerusalem undergoes a certain Hellenisation, but why use a plural form as a
referent? I checked the critical apparatus in some of the Greek texts, as
well
as the various Greek texts, and they all use the same plural form, so I know
that it is not a textual variant. I would appreciate any help you could
provide.
________________________
It's always good to check the entry in a good lexicon. BGAD has this
information under hIEROSOLUMA (summarized)
"1. The name refers—a. to the city itself . . . . b. to its inhabitants"
gfsomsel
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